By Guy Cramer

"Irreversibility in the Direction of Time" has been questioned with 3 documented cases of apparent massive time reversals.

Stephen Hawking has received a copy of this paper. If he chooses to respond publicly, his response will be posted at this site.

Irreversibility in the Direction of Time?

When reading any modern physics book the average person may be surprised to find that time is not constant in the universe. Gravity and motion have effects on the speed of time. Under normal circumstances time cannot reverse, however, it can slow down or speed up. A time reversal is not impossible with known physical law, but referred to as - a virtually infinitely unlikely event, it is too unlikely to expect it actually to happen. In other words it is known as the "irreversibility in the direction of time."

Evidence that the direction of time reversed twice in the last 50 years.

Over 2,500 years ago, the history of a country and a city were foretold and documented accurately to within days of modern events that took place within the last 50 years. The predictions are so accurate that they baffle theoretical physicist of our time. The only possible explanations are massive time reversals, and according to our present knowledge of the universe, this should be impossible for a three dimensional being. Only a being that exists in higher dimensions would be able to transcend the time-line forwards and backwards at will.

The Bible tells us that God transcends time:

"In the beginning (time), God created the heavens (space) and the earth (matter)." Genesis 1:1

A being who created time, space, and matter must be able to operate outside these boundaries.

Does God back up this claim of transcendence?:

The Bible is full of prophecies that were fulfilled within Biblical time . A prophecy could deceptively be authored into an earlier scripture after the event has happened, so this doesn't offer any proof of transcendence to the modern day skeptic.

In 1988 a calculation was discovered in the Bible that accurately foretold the exact year of 1948 for the Independence of Israel over 2,500 years after the prophecy was made. The prophet Jeremiah around 600 BC predicted that because the Jews were turning away from God to idol worship and other Gods he would punish them for 70 years under Babylonian captivity (see: Jeremiah 25:11). It has been historically documented that this did indeed take place, but again this prophecy could have been written in the Bible after the 70 years were fulfilled.

Ezekiel, another prophet, was also alive at this time, further prophesied in Ezekiel 4:3-6 that God knew that his people still would turn away from Him. Ezekiel was given a mathematical calculation, which clearly stated the number of years that this punishment lasted would equal 430 years. When we subtract the initial 70 years of punishment from the 430 years, we end up with 360 years of punishment that has been added to the initial 70 years.

How long a Year?

It has been determined that Biblical Prophecy uses a 360 day per year rule, not 365 days per year.
See: #X94

What happened at the end of the 360 prophetic years of punishment? The people of Israel failed to repent of their sin and disobedience again. No further words in the Bible are given on this, but Grant Jeffrey found a solution to the calculation at an earlier point in the Bible.

Leviticus 26:18 "And after all this, if you do not obey Me (God), then I will punish you seven times more for your sins."
360 prophetic years x 7 = 2520 prophetic years = 907,200 days

Independence

Working backwards from the day of Israel's Independence; 14 May 1948 A.D. and subtracting 907,200 days using the Calendar Converter, we get 15 July 0537 BC. A date when only a small percentage of the Jews returned back to Judah (What is now Israel) when released by the Persian king Cyrus. If we go back a further 70 years of 360 days (the initial time span prophesied by Jeremiah) we get 17 July 0606 B.C. The year 606 B.C. has been historically verified as the year in which Israel lost their Independence (a link for more in-depth analysis is provided later in this paper).

Grant Jeffrey, the researcher who discovered the calculation, made a slight mathematical mistake in his calculations in which the correct start year of 606 is used, but he used 70 years of 365 days-per-year for the first part of the prophecy, which throws out the rest of his calculation by one year which would have given us a final answer of 1949 and not the correct 1948 - one year off (he should have used 70 years of 360 days-per-year). I applied the 360 days to the 70 years and came up with the correct answer of 1948.

Jerusalem

As I was figuring out and correcting his mistake I noticed (as pointed out by Chuck Missler) that there were 2 separate 70 year prophecies being used by the prophets . One was for God's people - Israel, and one for God's city - Jerusalem.

I noticed a similar separation in time between; The loss of Independence in 606 B.C. and the loss of Israeli rule in Jerusalem in 0587 B.C., 606 - 587 = 19 years.
The recent Jewish capture of Jerusalem in 1967 A.D. in the six day war and Israeli independence in 1948 A.D., 1967 -1948 = 19 years.

The same prophetic calculations works for both the "Servitude of the Nation"(Israel) and the "Desolation's of Jerusalem"

Super Accuracy

When the same calculation is applied to the loss of Jerusalem in 587 B.C. and the recapture of Jerusalem in 1967 A.D. we find that after 2,552.77 years (932,400 days) the prophecy is accurate to within 17 days!
See: #X83.

The historical records from non-biblical sources confirms the start times for these prophecies.
See: #X86.

How do we explain this accuracy?

Were the Jews able to fulfill these ancient prophecies knowing the above calculations. Did they understand that 1948 was foretold and they declared their independence in 1948. Did they then cause the Egyptians to attack them in 1967 which would allow them to take Jerusalem under Israeli government rule for the first time since 587 B.C.

There are a few overwhelming problems if we assume the Jews and Arabs collaborated together to achieve fulfilled prophecy. The political and religious views of the Jews and Arabs are completely at odds with each other.

Could the Jews have been able to purposely fulfill the prophecies without the help of the Arabs?

This would be highly unlikely when one reviews the military history of two dates in question of 1948 and 1967. Military action in both cases was initiated by the surrounding Arab nations. Israel was also out manned and out gunned in both wars. To purposely fulfill these two dates should have been suicide for the country.

Also, in purposely fulfilling the 2 prophecies the Jews would then provide evidence that Jesus was the Messiah.

The Third Time Reversal?

There is a third prophecy by Daniel that was given at approximately the same time as the other two prophecies. He even links it within one verse of the other two prophecies.

Daniel 9:24: "Seventy weeks are determined for your people (Israel) and for your holy city (Jerusalem), to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy." NKJV

The Hebrew word translated as "weeks" literally means years.

Just one verse later in Daniel we read about the third prophecy:

Daniel 9:25: "Know therefore and understand , That from the going forth of the command To restore and build Jerusalem Until Messiah the Prince There shall be seven weeks and sixty two weeks; The street shall be built again and the wall, Even in troublesome times." NKJV

Another mathematical calculation:

Daniel 9:25 states that from the time of the command to rebuild Jerusalem until Messiah the Prince there will be 483 years. If a "shabuim" is a week (seven) of years, it therefore follows that 69 sevens is 483 years (69 x 7=483 years). 483 years x 360 day prophetic year = 173,880 days

When was the command issued to restore and build Jerusalem: There are 4 different decrees issued in the Bible within almost 100 years of each other. Which one do we use? The logical choice is the decree of Artaxerxes to Nehemiah (Nehemiah 2:1-8). Why use this one? Because it is the only decree that mentions rebuilding the walls of Jerusalem. The commandment to restore and build Jerusalem was given by Artaxerxes Longimanus on March 14, 445 BC.
See: #X23.

If we jump ahead 173,880 days we arrive at April 6, 32 AD. This is the day that Jesus presented himself as the Messiah. This historical date of April 6, 32 AD can also be verified;
See; #X87.

Of course the atheists understanding the implications of all the data put forth on the Daniel 9:25 prophecy coming out to the very day, argued that the decree used as a starting point for the prophecy was not a decree at all. I reviewed the original Hebrew in both Daniel 9:25 and Nehemiah 2:1-8 and asked a Professor of Hebrew to verify it. He showed that the royal letters issued in Nehemiah 2:1-8 can be understood as a decree and even sited another reference to back this up.
See; #X88.

The book of Daniel was translated into Greek (the Septuagint) nearly three centuries before Jesus was even born. Original copies exist today.

So where does this leave us?

If the Jews were trying to fulfill biblical prophecy, they never mentioned this after the fact. These calculations were not discovered or disclosed by the Jews. The discovery that the 932,400 days also applied to Jerusalem and not just Israel was just discovered in the Summer of 1997. So the Israeli government and military both provided, quite by accident, evidence that Jesus is the Messiah. The odds that the Israeli Government and military collaborated to fulfill the prophetic dates of 1948 and 1967, without knowing that they were also verifying the messianic passage of Daniel 9:25 as relating to Jesus, with the confirmation of the prophetic 360-day-year, is so remote that I would expect a time reversal before I would expect Israel to purposely confirm Jesus as the Messiah.

A Challange to Stephen Hawking's Universe

Stephen Hawking's God is used as a word put in place of a quantum question mark. Where Stephen has no answer for something such as what caused the big bang, he uses the term God in place of a question mark, hoping one day to find an answer and use a better word in place of the question mark; God?

I commend Stephen on his search for the truth. When a theory in physics is presented, that most in his position would grasp until something better comes along, he follows it through to a conclusion (this usually takes a day or two with Stephen) and then states if it works or fails. Many theories have been presented which take the place of a Creator and a singular beginning (The Big Bang), but Stephen admits that they do not fully work. He is hopeful that we will find an explanation that will rule out God in his Universe.

Stephen Hawking's quotes from his book "A Brief History Of Time, A reader's companion"

Stephen Hawking's Universe Implodes

The theoretical physicist in recent time has only needed to explain away God from the stand point of the beginning of the Universe. There was no concrete evidence other than this point that showed any outside influence on our universe. Now the theoretical physicist is confronted with the uncomfortable situation of also having to explain away the empirical evidence of time reversals, or extremely accurate forecasts from Biblical authors thousands of years ago without a transcendent God.

"... I am God, and there is none like Me, declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times things that are not yet done, Saying, 'My council shall stand, and I will do all My pleasure,' " (Isaiah 46:9-10)

More evidence. Carl Sagan takes the stand; see: #X81 Contacted

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